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Oncology Nursing Exam

OCN topic 09 of 10

Tumor lysis syndrome and the metabolic emergencies

Tumor lysis syndrome is what happens when cancer cells die faster than the kidneys can clear what they release: potassium, phosphate and uric acid climb, and calcium drops. On the OCN it is one of sixteen Domain V items. This page groups it with the four others that are recognized mostly from lab values or, for clots, from risk scores and imaging: hypercalcemia of malignancy, SIADH, disseminated intravascular coagulation and venous thromboembolism.

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18 lab-driven emergency questions

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Metabolic emergencies

A patient with tumor lysis syndrome is receiving rasburicase, and the provider orders a uric acid level. How should the nurse handle the blood sample?

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At room temperature the enzyme in the sample keeps destroying uric acid, so the level reads falsely low and can hide ongoing tumor lysis.

Blood from an infusion line can be diluted or carry drug into the sample; it is drawn from a site without an infusion.

Every hour of delay lets the drug lower uric acid in the tube; the sample must reach the lab and be run within 4 hours.

Rasburicase keeps breaking down uric acid inside the tube at room temperature, so the label calls for a prechilled heparin tube, an ice-water bath, and analysis within 4 hours; otherwise the result reads falsely low.

Metabolic emergencies

Two weeks after starting allopurinol for tumor lysis prophylaxis, a patient develops a widespread rash, fever, and eosinophilia. The nurse should first:

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An antihistamine may ease itching but continuing the culprit drug risks organ involvement and death.

A severe allopurinol reaction is not dose-limited; any continued exposure keeps it going.

Rash, fever, and eosinophilia weeks after starting allopurinol suggest a severe hypersensitivity reaction such as DRESS; the drug is stopped at once and not restarted.

Fever with eosinophilia and rash after a new drug points to a drug reaction; waiting for cultures lets the reaction progress.

Metabolic emergencies

A 62-year-old man with high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma, one day after starting induction chemotherapy, has muscle cramps and perioral tingling. His laboratory results are shown below. Which value poses the most immediate threat to his life?

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Potassium at this level can trigger a fatal arrhythmia within minutes, so it outranks every other abnormality on the panel; continuous ECG monitoring starts at once.

Low calcium explains the cramps and tingling, which makes it tempting, but at this level it is less immediately lethal than the potassium.

High uric acid injures the kidneys over hours to days; it matters, but it does not stop the heart.

Kidney injury drives the rising potassium and may lead to dialysis, but the creatinine itself is not the immediate threat.

Metabolic emergencies

An older patient with hypercalcemia of malignancy is receiving aggressive IV normal saline. Which finding should the nurse report promptly?

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Clearer thinking shows the calcium is coming down; it is a sign of response, not a problem.

A falling calcium is the goal of hydration and needs no urgent report.

Rapid saline restores volume and calcium excretion, but older adults can develop fluid overload; crackles and falling saturation call for slowing fluids and reassessing.

Brisk urine output is expected during saline diuresis and shows the kidneys are clearing calcium.

Metabolic emergencies

A patient taking digoxin develops hypercalcemia of malignancy. The nurse watches closely for:

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Bleeding points to a platelet or clotting problem; neither calcium nor digoxin causes it.

High calcium adds to digoxin's effect on cardiac conduction, so dangerous dysrhythmias can appear even at a usual digoxin level.

Hearing loss is linked to drugs such as cisplatin or aminoglycosides, not to calcium or digoxin.

Neither hypercalcemia nor digoxin lowers blood glucose.

Metabolic emergencies

A patient with multiple myeloma is due for monthly zoledronic acid. Serum creatinine has risen from 1.0 to 1.6 mg/dL since the last dose. What should the nurse do?

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For bone metastases and myeloma, the label calls for withholding zoledronic acid when creatinine rises 0.5 mg/dL or more from a normal baseline, until it returns to near baseline.

Faster infusion raises kidney toxicity; zoledronic acid runs over no less than 15 minutes.

Giving another nephrotoxic dose to a kidney that is already worsening can cause lasting injury.

Extra fluid does not offset the drug's direct kidney toxicity once creatinine has risen.

Metabolic emergencies

A patient hospitalized with hypercalcemia of malignancy asks about activity. Which instruction is most appropriate?

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Calcium in malignancy comes from bone and PTH-related protein, so cutting dietary calcium does little and can worsen nutrition.

Weight bearing slows bone resorption, while immobility releases more calcium from bone and worsens hypercalcemia.

Bed rest speeds calcium release from bone and adds clot and pressure risks.

High calcium makes the kidneys lose water; fluids are encouraged, not restricted.

Metabolic emergencies

A patient with SIADH is started on tolvaptan. Which plan is correct?

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Fluid restriction is avoided during the first 24 hours of tolvaptan, because combined with the drug it can overcorrect sodium.

Grapefruit inhibits CYP3A and raises tolvaptan levels, so it is avoided.

Tolvaptan is started in a hospital because sodium can rise too fast and cause osmotic demyelination; sodium is checked closely in the first days.

Tolvaptan is limited to about 30 days because of liver injury, and sodium and liver tests are followed.

Metabolic emergencies

A patient with lung cancer and brain metastases has hyponatremia with concentrated urine and a high urine sodium. Which finding suggests cerebral salt wasting rather than SIADH?

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A high urine sodium is part of both pictures, which is exactly why volume status is the deciding sign.

Both conditions produce hypotonic hyponatremia, so serum osmolality does not separate them.

Concentrated urine occurs in both; it does not tell salt wasting from SIADH.

Cerebral salt wasting loses sodium and water together, so the patient is dry; SIADH keeps the patient euvolemic. This matters because the treatments are opposite.

Metabolic emergencies

A patient with SIADH on a 1-L/day fluid restriction is bothered by thirst. Which suggestion is most appropriate?

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Sports drinks hold far less sodium than plasma, so they mainly add free water and lower sodium further.

Hard candy stimulates saliva and eases dry mouth without adding free water, so the restriction is kept.

Hourly sips add up across the day and quietly exceed the 1-L limit.

Ice chips are water and count toward the restriction; taken without limit they undo it.

Metabolic emergencies

As serum sodium falls in a patient with SIADH, which symptoms usually appear first?

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Tingling around the mouth and cramps point to low calcium, as in tumor lysis, rather than low sodium.

Seizures and stupor are late signs of severe or rapidly falling sodium, not the first ones.

Early hyponatremia causes vague symptoms such as nausea, headache, and malaise; confusion and seizures come with lower or faster-falling sodium.

Large volumes of dilute urine and thirst describe diabetes insipidus, the opposite water problem.

Metabolic emergencies

A patient with metastatic pancreatic cancer is admitted for pain control. Platelets are 180,000/mm³ and there is no bleeding. Which VTE prophylaxis should the nurse anticipate?

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Aspirin is not an adequate venous thromboprophylaxis for hospitalized medical patients with cancer.

ASCO (2023) recommends drug prophylaxis for hospitalized patients with active cancer and acute illness when there is no bleeding or other contraindication; pancreatic cancer adds risk.

Full-dose anticoagulation treats a clot; it is not prophylaxis and adds bleeding risk.

Mechanical methods are for patients who cannot receive anticoagulants; this patient has no contraindication.

Metabolic emergencies

A patient with metastatic colon cancer has a large pulmonary embolism. Which ECG finding is most common in PE?

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Sinus tachycardia is the most frequent ECG change in pulmonary embolism, although it is not specific.

S1Q3T3 is the classic textbook sign of right heart strain, but it appears in only a minority of patients.

Beat-to-beat changes in QRS height suggest a large pericardial effusion, not a pulmonary embolism.

A slow rate is unusual in PE; the heart speeds up to keep output as the right ventricle strains.

Metabolic emergencies

A patient with active cancer and suspected pulmonary embolism has an elevated D-dimer. The nurse understands that in this population a high D-dimer:

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Malignancy itself raises D-dimer, which is the reason it is less useful in this group.

An elevated D-dimer shows only that fibrin is being broken down somewhere, which is common in cancer without any clot.

D-dimer rises with small clots too, and with many conditions that are not clots at all, so its level does not measure clot size.

Cancer, recent surgery, chemotherapy, and infection all raise D-dimer, so a high value cannot confirm PE; imaging decides.

Metabolic emergencies

A nurse caring for a patient newly diagnosed with acute promyelocytic leukemia anticipates DIC because this leukemia characteristically:

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Marrow replacement lowers platelets in any acute leukemia, but it does not explain consumption of clotting factors.

In APL fibrinogen is typically low, because it is being consumed and broken down.

Promyelocyte granules release tissue factor and other procoagulants that switch on clotting throughout the body, consuming platelets and factors and driving fibrinolysis.

Antibody-mediated factor loss, such as an acquired inhibitor, is a different disorder and not how APL causes bleeding.

Metabolic emergencies

In DIC, widespread microthrombi can cause which finding the nurse should monitor?

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Microthrombi in the kidney lower urine output, so oliguria, not diuresis, is the warning sign.

Small clots in fingers, toes, and organ vessels cut off flow, causing dusky digits and failing kidneys, lungs, or brain alongside the bleeding.

Warm extremities show good perfusion, the opposite of what microthrombi cause.

DIC is linked with shock and poor perfusion, not with a lone rise in blood pressure.

Metabolic emergencies

A patient with acute myeloid leukemia has a WBC count of 150,000/mm³, new confusion, hypoxemia, and retinal hemorrhages. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

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The WBC will not fall without treatment; delaying cytoreduction lets the brain and lung injury progress.

Red cells add to blood viscosity in leukostasis, so transfusion is avoided or delayed until the count falls.

Diuresis concentrates the blood and raises viscosity further; hydration is used instead.

Symptomatic leukostasis needs the blast count lowered quickly; cytoreduction with hydroxyurea or induction is definitive, and leukapheresis may be added.

Metabolic emergencies

Which patient should the nurse assess first?

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Suspected PE with hypotension is high-risk (massive) embolism and can progress to arrest; this patient needs assessment and escalation now.

A flare reaction along the vein is a local, self-limited histamine response, not an extravasation.

Grade 1 CRS is fever alone; it needs monitoring and supportive care but is not unstable.

Mild hypercalcemia in an alert, eating patient is stable and can wait.

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Next topic: Psychosocial care in oncologyEvery OCN topic

Five lab-driven items of Domain V

DIC, SIADH, tumor lysis, hypercalcemia and venous thromboembolism are items A, B, D, G and P of Oncologic Emergencies (16% of the exam). The 2026 edition raised the domain's weight (12% → 16%) and kept the same sixteen items, now naming CRS and ICANS as examples of immune-related adverse events.

The structural items such as superior vena cava syndrome and cord compression, with a map of all sixteen, are on oncologic emergencies.

Tumor lysis syndrome by the Cairo-Bishop criteria

The standard definition is the one Cairo and Bishop published in the British Journal of Haematology (2004). It counts abnormal values in a window that opens 3 days before therapy and closes on day 7.

Laboratory TLS means two or more of:

  • uric acid of 8 mg/dL or more, or a rise of 25% from baseline;
  • potassium of 6 mEq/L or more, or a 25% rise;
  • phosphate of 4.5 mg/dL or more in adults, or a 25% rise;
  • calcium of 7 mg/dL or less, or a 25% fall.

Clinical TLS is laboratory TLS plus at least one of: a creatinine at least 1.5 × the laboratory's upper normal limit, a cardiac arrhythmia or sudden death, or a seizure.

Calcium falls because the released phosphate binds it. Calcium-phosphate crystals then settle in the renal tubules alongside uric acid, which is how tumor lysis turns into acute kidney injury.

Who is at risk, and how TLS is prevented

Risk comes from the tumor, its bulk and the kidneys:

  • Tumor type: fast-growing cancers that respond quickly to treatment, Burkitt lymphoma and other high-grade lymphomas, acute lymphoblastic leukemia, and acute myeloid leukemia with a high white count. TLS in solid tumors is uncommon.
  • Tumor burden: bulky disease, a high LDH, a high white count, heavy marrow involvement.
  • The patient: kidney impairment before treatment, dehydration, a uric acid that is already high.
  • The drug: some targeted agents carry the risk into cancers that rarely had it. Venetoclax for chronic lymphocytic leukemia starts with a 5-week dose ramp-up, with hydration, uric acid lowering and lab checks at each step set out in the Venclexta (venetoclax) prescribing information (2026).

Prevention is matched to the risk: generous IV hydration to keep urine flowing, a uric acid–lowering drug (allopurinol, or rasburicase when the risk or the uric acid is high), and electrolytes, uric acid and creatinine drawn several times a day in high-risk patients. Strict intake and output and daily weights are the nursing side of that plan.

Rasburicase has two practical details. Patients with G6PD deficiency cannot receive it (it causes hemolysis and methemoglobinemia), so those at risk are screened first. And it keeps breaking down uric acid inside the blood tube: the Elitek (rasburicase) prescribing information (2026) asks for pre-chilled heparin tubes, an ice-water bath and analysis within 4 hours, because a sample left at room temperature reads falsely low.

Hypercalcemia of malignancy

Most hypercalcemia in cancer is humoral: the tumor secretes parathyroid hormone–related protein (PTHrP), typical of squamous cell cancers and of kidney, bladder and ovarian cancers. Bone destruction by metastases or myeloma explains most of the rest, and some lymphomas make excess calcitriol. Stewart's review in the New England Journal of Medicine (2005) puts the split at about 80% humoral and 20% local osteolytic.

Correct the calcium for albumin before judging how high it is: corrected calcium = measured calcium + 0.8 × (4.0 − albumin in g/dL). A measured 11.0 mg/dL with an albumin of 2.0 g/dL corrects to 12.6 mg/dL. An ionized calcium, when the lab offers it, needs no correction.

Symptoms follow both the level and the speed of the rise: thirst and polyuria (the kidney can no longer concentrate urine), constipation, nausea, fatigue and weakness, and confusion that can progress to coma. The ECG may show a shortened QT interval. Treatment combines IV saline with drugs that stop bone resorption; calcitonin acts within hours but loses its effect within about two days. Whether the calcium stays down depends on control of the cancer.

SIADH, DIC and clots

SIADH

The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion lowers the sodium by holding water, not by losing salt. The diagnostic findings in the European clinical practice guideline on hyponatraemia (2014): serum osmolality below 275 mOsm/kg, urine that is inappropriately concentrated (above 100 mOsm/kg), urine sodium usually above 30 mEq/L, and a patient who looks neither dry nor fluid-overloaded. Small cell lung cancer is the classic tumor; cyclophosphamide, vincristine, cisplatin, carbamazepine, SSRIs and opioids are common drug causes. Mild cases are managed with fluid restriction. Severe symptoms such as seizures or reduced alertness call for hypertonic saline, with a cap on how far the sodium may rise in a day, because correcting a chronically low sodium too quickly can cause osmotic demyelination.

DIC

In disseminated intravascular coagulation, clotting is switched on throughout the circulation, so clots and bleeding happen together. Platelets and fibrinogen are used up, PT and aPTT lengthen, and fibrin breakdown products such as D-dimer rise. The International Society on Thrombosis and Haemostasis (ISTH) overt DIC score (2001) adds points for the platelet count, a fibrin marker, PT prolongation and fibrinogen; a total of 5 or more is compatible with overt DIC. Acute leukemias tend to produce the acute, bleeding form; mucin-producing adenocarcinomas of the pancreas, stomach or lung more often produce a slower form in which clotting dominates. Treatment targets the cause, with blood products guided by the labs. The nurse watches for oozing at line sites and gums, new petechiae or bruising, and blood in urine or stool.

Venous thromboembolism

The Khorana score (Blood, 2008) estimates clot risk for outpatients starting chemotherapy: 2 points for a very high-risk site (stomach, pancreas); 1 for a high-risk site (lung, lymphoma, gynecologic, bladder, testicular); and 1 point each for platelets of 350,000/mm³ or more, hemoglobin below 10 g/dL or use of an erythropoiesis-stimulating agent, a white count above 11,000/mm³, and a BMI of 35 or more. The ASCO guideline update on VTE in cancer (2023) says high-risk outpatients (a score of 2 or more) may be offered apixaban, rivaroxaban or low-molecular-weight heparin as prophylaxis, and it lists low-molecular-weight heparin and the oral factor Xa inhibitors for treatment. The Revlimid (lenalidomide) prescribing information (2026) carries a boxed warning for venous and arterial thromboembolism in myeloma treated with dexamethasone and recommends thromboprophylaxis.

Lab patterns that get confused

  • TLS or hypercalcemia? Both bring a weak, nauseated patient with failing kidneys, but calcium moves in opposite directions: down in TLS, where phosphate binds it, and up in hypercalcemia. TLS follows treatment of a fast-growing tumor; hypercalcemia belongs to advanced solid tumors and myeloma.
  • SIADH or diabetes insipidus? SIADH keeps water: low sodium, concentrated urine, little of it. Diabetes insipidus loses water: a high or high-normal sodium and large volumes of dilute urine. A tumor, surgery or radiation near the pituitary or hypothalamus points to DI.
  • Uncorrected calcium. A normal-looking total calcium in a patient with a low albumin can be a high corrected one.
  • The 25% rule. A 25% change from baseline counts toward laboratory TLS even while the value is still inside the normal range.
  • Normal saline for every low sodium. Isotonic saline is a mainstay for TLS and hypercalcemia, but in SIADH it can lower the sodium further when the urine is more concentrated than the saline.

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Metabolic emergencies: quick answers

Which lab values define tumor lysis syndrome?

Under Cairo-Bishop, laboratory TLS needs at least two of a high uric acid, high potassium, high phosphate or low calcium, or a 25% change in each, inside the window from 3 days before therapy through day 7. Clinical TLS adds kidney injury, an arrhythmia or a seizure.

How is calcium corrected for a low albumin?

Add 0.8 mg/dL to the measured total calcium for every 1 g/dL that albumin falls below 4.0. An ionized calcium needs no correction.

Why can't patients with G6PD deficiency receive rasburicase?

Rasburicase breaks uric acid down into allantoin and hydrogen peroxide. Red cells that lack G6PD cannot neutralize the peroxide, so hemolysis and methemoglobinemia can follow; patients at risk are screened before the first dose.

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Psychosocial care in oncology

Part of Domain VI · Psychosocial Dimensions of Care (10%)

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  2. 07Symptom management and supportive careNausea and vomiting, bowel changes, mucositis, neuropathy, fatigue, skin and hair changes, lymphedema and ostomies, nutrition and weight loss, pain, and complementary therapies.

Domain III · Treatment Modalities20%

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Domain V · Oncologic Emergencies16%

  1. 08Oncologic emergencies: structural and treatment-relatedSuperior vena cava syndrome, spinal cord compression, cardiac tamponade, raised intracranial pressure, obstructions and pneumonitis, with a map of all sixteen Domain V emergencies.
  2. 09Tumor lysis syndrome and metabolic emergencies

Domain II · Oncology Nursing Practice15%

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Domain I · Care Continuum14%

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